0 votes 0 votes Let $f(z)$ be an analytic function, where $z=x+i y$. If the real part of $f(z)$ is $\cosh x \cos y$, and the imaginary part of $f(z)$ is zero for $y=0$, then $f(z)$ is $\cosh x \exp (-i y)$ $\cosh z \exp z$ $\cosh z \cos y$ $\cosh z$ Others gateme-2024 + – admin asked Feb 16 • edited Feb 23 by makhdoom ghaya ♦admin 4.4k points answer See all 0 reply