0 votes 0 votes The real variables $x, y, z$, and the real constants $p, q, r$ satisfy \[ \frac{x}{p q-r^{2}}=\frac{y}{q r-p^{2}}=\frac{z}{r p-q^{2}} \] Given that the denominators are non-zero, the value of $p x+q y+r z$ is $0$ $1$ $p q r$ $p^{2}+q^{2}+r^{2}$ Others gateme-2024 + – admin asked Feb 16 • edited Feb 23 by makhdoom ghaya ♦admin 4.4k points answer See all 0 reply