0 votes 0 votes According to the Mean Value Theorem, for a continuous function $f(x)$ in the interval $[a,b]$, there exists a value $\xi$ in this interval such that $\int_a^b f(x) dx = $ $f(\xi)(b-a)$ $f(b)(\xi-a)$ $f(a)(b-\xi)$ $0$ Calculus gateme-2018-set1 calculus mean-value-theorems definite-integrals + – Arjun asked Feb 17, 2018 • recategorized Mar 5, 2021 by Lakshman Bhaiya ♦Arjun 28.5k points answer See all 0 reply