4 4 votes The real variables $x, y, z$, and the real constants $p, q, r$ satisfy \[ \frac{x}{p q-r^{2}}=\frac{y}{q r-p^{2}}=\frac{z}{r p-q^{2}} \] Given that the denominators are non-zero, the value of $p x+q y+r z$ is $0$ $1$ $p q r$ $p^{2}+q^{2}+r^{2}$ Quantitative Aptitude gateme-2024 quantitative-aptitude ratio-proportion + – ♦admin 812 views answer comment Share Follow Add Sync Questions 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 7 7 votes Let, $K$ be a real number such that\[\frac{x}{p q-r^{2}}=\frac{y}{q r-p^{2}}=\frac{z}{r p-q^{2}}=K\]$\implies$ \[x=K*(pq-r^{2})\]\[y=K*(qr-p^{2})\]\[z=K*(rp-q^{2})\]$\therefore px + qy + rz = K*[\color{red}{p^2q}\color{green}{-r^2p}\color{blue}{+q^2r}\color{red}{-p^2q}\color{green}{+r^2p}\color{blue}{-q^2r}\color{black}{] = K*0=0}$Hence, Option A is the correct option. Sujith K answered Aug 14, 2024 • moved May 13 by Arjun Sujith K comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.
1 1 vote Step by step explanations Option A is correct Rohit139 answered Nov 6, 2024 • moved May 13 by Arjun Rohit139 comment Share Follow 0 reply Please log in or register to add a comment.