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4 Answers

Best answer
6 6 votes
B. JED

From the examples, it's clear that the code is using next alphabet.
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1 1 vote
we can understand the rule from the given example

I+1=J

M+1=N

H+1=I

O+1=P

now apply these rules to the IDC

so we will get JED

so B is answer
0 0 votes
THE ANSWER WILL BE  (B):  JED

since,IMHO=JNIP=3000(generating code)

         IDK=JEL=000(generating code)

         SO=TP=00(generating code)

SO,   IDC=JED=000(generating code)

because the code is generating the next alphabet as shown in the IDK=JEL which is like to this and generating 000 code.
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Ans B.

The pattern in the given transformations involves shifting each letter to the next in the alphabet:

  • I → J, M → N, H → I, O → P (IMHO = JNIP)
  • I → J, D → E, K → L (IDK = JEL)
  • S → T, O → P (SO = TP)

Following this pattern for IDC:

  • I → J
  • D → E
  • C → D

So, IDC = JED.

The correct answer is JED.

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