13 13 votes The value of the expression $\dfrac{1}{1+ \log_u \: vw} + \dfrac{1}{1+ \log_v \: wu} + \dfrac{1}{1+\log_w uv}$ is _______ $-1$ $0$ $1$ $3$ Quantitative Aptitude gate2018-me-2 general-aptitude quantitative-aptitude logarithms + – ♦Arjun 928 views answer comment Share Follow Add Sync Questions See 1 comment 1 1 comment reply Sachin Mittal 1 commented Oct 14, 2025 reply Follow flag 👉 Quick trick: whenever such cyclic log expressions appear symmetrically, you can safely assume powers of a single base (like $2, 4, 8$ ). Take \( u = 2, \, v = 4, \, w = 8 \). These are powers of 2, so logs become neat.\[ \log_u(vw) = \log_2(4 \times 8) = \log_2(32) = 5 \]Hence the first term = \( \frac{1}{1 + 5} = \frac{1}{6} \)\[ \log_v(wu) = \log_4(8 \times 2) = \log_4(16) = 2 \]Hence the second term = \( \frac{1}{1 + 2} = \frac{1}{3} \)\[ \log_w(uv) = \log_8(2 \times 4) = \log_8(8) = 1 \]Hence the third term = \( \frac{1}{1 + 1} = \frac{1}{2} \)Now add them all:\[ \frac{1}{6} + \frac{1}{3} + \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1 + 2 + 3}{6} = 1 \]Final Answer = 1So the correct option is (C) 1. 3 3 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.
Best answer 20 20 votes $\dfrac{1}{1+ \log_{u} \: vw} + \dfrac{1}{1+ \log_{v} \: wu} + \dfrac{1}{1+\log_{w} uv}$ $ = \dfrac{1}{\log_{u} \: u + \log_{u} \: vw} + \dfrac{1}{\log_{v} \: v + \log_{v} \: wu} + \dfrac{1}{\log_{w} \: w +\log_{w} \: uv}$ $ = \dfrac{1}{\log_{u} \: uvw} + \dfrac{1}{\log_{v} \: vwu} + \dfrac{1}{\log_{w} \: wuv}$ $ = \dfrac{1}{\log_{u} \: uvw} + \dfrac{1}{\log_{v} \: uvw} + \dfrac{1}{\log_{w}\: uvw}$ $ = \log_{uvw} \: u + \log_{uvw} \: v + \log_{uvw} \: w$ $ = \log_{uvw} \: uvw $ $ = 1\qquad\because\left(\log_{a} \: a = 1 \right)$ Hence $(C)$ is Correct. Balaji Jegan answered Feb 21, 2018 • moved May 18 by Arjun Balaji Jegan comment Share Follow See all 4 Comments 4 4 Comments reply suchithreddy commented Oct 14, 2019 i moved by Arjun May 18 reply Follow flag assume u=v=w=10 we will get ans as 1 3 3 replyShare Kiyoshi commented Nov 23, 2021 i moved by Arjun May 18 reply Follow flag why just u=v=w=10 only… you can also take u=v=w=100 u=v=w=1000 u=v=w=2 u=v=w=3 . . u=v=w =K K is any number for which log is defined. 1 1 replyShare anujs commented Sep 19, 2024 i moved by Arjun May 18 reply Follow flag @suchithreddy and @Kiyoshi by assuming $(u=v=w)$, you are decreasing the domain of this problem. this approach can only work in certain type of problems and if you are lucky then only you can think of such a brute-force-ish method and get a solution in a resonable amount of time during exam. 1 1 replyShare i_m_sudip commented Dec 27, 2024 i moved by Arjun May 18 reply Follow flag nice approach. 0 0 replyShare Please log in or register to add a comment.